UPSC Essentials: Daily Subject-wise Quizzes on Polity, Governance, and Urban Development

UPSC Essentials brings to you its initiative of daily subject-wise quizzes. These quizzes are designed to help you revise some of the most important topics from the static part of the syllabus. Attempt today’s subject quiz on Polity and Governance to check your progress. 🚨 Click Here to read the UPSC Essentials magazine for February 2026 . Share your views and suggestions in the comment box or at manas.srivastava@ indianexpress.com 🚨 With reference to the protocols listed for singing/playing Vande Mataram, consider the following statements: 1. When the National Song and the National Anthem are sung or played, National Song will be sung or played first. 2. Any two of the six stanzas of the national song can be sung or played. 3. Whenever the official version of the National Song is sung or played, the audience shall stand to attention. 4. The official version of the National Song shall not be sung or played during cultural occasions or ceremonial functions. Which of the protocols given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only Relevance: The question tests awareness of recent government circulars. It examines the distinction between National Song vs National Anthem protocol. This is a classic example of how UPSC can test current updates in protocol, especially during symbolic anniversaries like the 150th year of Vande Mataram, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. Explanation — All six stanzas of the National Song Vande Mataram, penned by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, shall be sung before the National Anthem Jana Gana Mana when both of them are to be played together , according to a directive issued by the Union Home Ministry. This year marks the 150th anniversary of Vande Mataram. — In the directive dated January 28, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified first set of protocols for singing the National Song, directing that six stanzas of it shall be sung on official functions. It takes approximately 3 minutes 10 seconds to sing the six stanzas of the song. — Here are the protocols MHA listed for singing/playing Vande Mataram Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer. To Read more: All 6 stanzas of National Song must before National Anthem when played together: MHA guidelines on Vande Mataram The “Right to Recall” mechanism empowers: (a) Voters to de-elect an elected representative, before their term ends, if they fail to discharge their duties. (b) Voters to dissolve the entire legislative assembly before completion of its tenure through a popular vote. (c) The Governor to remove an elected representative on the recommendation of the State Election Commission. (d) The electorate to initiate impeachment proceedings against constitutional functionaries through a referendum. Relevance: The Right to Recall is relevant because it relates to democratic accountability and electoral reforms, a recurring theme in Polity questions. It is also linked to debates on participatory democracy vs representative democracy, making it a potential trap question in Prelims. Explanation — Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) MP Raghav Chadha called for the introduction of a “Right to Recall” mechanism in India, arguing that voters should have the power to remove elected representatives whom they consider as non-performing before their five-year term ends . — Right to Recall is a mechanism that empowers voters to “de-elect an elected representative, before their term ends, if they fail to discharge their duties,” Chadha explained in a post on his official X handle. — “If we can impeach the President, the Vice President and judges, and move a no confidence motion against an elected government mid term, then why should voters be forced to tolerate a non performing MP or MLA for five full years,” the AAP national spokesperson said. He questioned why voters should be “forced to tolerate a non-performing MP or MLA for five full years,” in India at a time more than two dozen democracies worldwide, including the United States and Switzerland, have some form of recall provisions initiated by voters. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the elections to Parliament? (a) Part XV (b) Part VIII (c) Part XIV (d) Part XII Relevance: Questions on which Part of the Constitution deals with specific subjects are a favourite UPSC pattern to test conceptual clarity of constitutional structure. Elections form the backbone of India’s democratic system, and provisions relating to them connect directly to themes like Election Commission, adult suffrage, electoral rolls, and judicial review in electoral matters. Explanation — Article 324 in PartXVof the Constitution empowers the Election Commission to conduct elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and to the offices of President and Vice-President. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Which of the following is/are examples of substantive motions? 1. Motions of confidence/no-confidence in the Council of Ministers 2. Motion for Adjournment on a matter of public importance 3. Motions for election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker 4. Resolution for removal of the Speaker/Deputy Speaker Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 only Relevance: Questions on types of motions in Parliament are a recurring Polity theme, especially from chapters dealing with Parliamentary procedure and control over the Executive. Such questions also connect to executive accountability under Articles 75 and 118 of the Constitution. Explanation — “A substantive motion is a self-contained independent proposal submitted for the approval of the House and drafted in such a manner as to be capable of expressing a decision of the House,” say M N Kaul and S L Shakdher in their authoritative book Practice and Procedure of Parliament, which explains at length the various kinds of substantive motions. — Motions for election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Motion of Thanks on the Address by the President, Motion for Adjournment on a matter of public importance, resolutions, motions for raising discussion on a matter of general public interest, motions of confidence/no-confidence in the Council of Ministers, resolution for removal of the Speaker/Deputy Speaker, motion declaring the seat of a member vacant and where leave of absence is not agreed to by the House, are examples of the substantive motions moved in Lok Sabha . Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. With reference to the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF), consider the following statements: 1. All cities with a population over 10 lakh will be covered under the Urban Challenge Fund. 2. States in North Eastern and hilly parts of India are not covered under this fund. 3. Under the scheme, central assistance will cover 50 per cent of a project’s cost. 4. It will be operational from FY 2025-26 to FY 2035-36. How many of the statements given above are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All four Relevance: The Urban Challenge Fund is important for Prelims because it is a new centrally sponsored urban reform initiative announced in the Union Budget 2025-26. It also reflects the shift toward market-based urban financing and reform-linked assistance, a recurring theme in recent prelims questions. Explanation — The Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman had announced the establishment of an Urban Challenge Fund of Rs 1 lakh crore to carry out projects for “cities as growth hubs, creative redevelopment of cities and water and sanitation”. — In the Budget 2026-2027, Rs 10,000 crore was allocated to the UCF again. — The UCF will leverage market financing, participation of the private sector and citizen-centric reforms to enable the development of high-quality urban infrastructure. — It marks a paradigm shift in India’s urban development approach from that of grant-based financing to a market-linked, reform-driven and outcome-oriented infrastructure creation. — Under the scheme, central assistance will cover 25 per cent of a project’s cost, given that at least 50 per cent of the funding is mobilised from the market. The state/UT/urban local bodies/external parties will contribute another 25% of the cost. The Centre will pay significant focus on Tier-II and Tier-III cities, along with states in North Eastern and hilly parts of India . Hence, statements 2 and 4 are not correct. — It will be operational from FY 2025-26 to FY 2030-31 , with an extendable implementation period up to FY 2033-34, news agency PTI noted. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. — All cities with a population over 10 lakh, all capital cities, major industrial cities with a population of more than 1 lakh will be covered under the Urban Challenge Fund. Besides these targets, the Centre will pay significant focus on Tier-II and Tier-III cities, along with states in North Eastern and hilly parts of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Daily Subject-wise quiz — History, Culture, and Social Issues (Week 145) Daily subject-wise quiz — Polity and Governance (Week 149) Daily subject-wise quiz — Science and Technology (Week 149) Daily subject-wise quiz — Economy (Week 149) Daily subject-wise quiz — Environment and Geography (Week 149) Daily subject-wise quiz – International Relations (Week 149) Subscribe to our UPSC newsletter and stay updated with the news cues from the past week. Stay updated with the latest UPSC articles by joining our Telegram channel – IndianExpress UPSC Hub , and follow us on Instagram and X.